Hi! Could someone explain why the answer is D. I would’ve answered D but in the passage it says that the smoking level is relatively the same and wouldn’t studies in the 60s and 70s be invalid for the current rate in decline in life expectancy?
The conclusion for this particular argument is in the last line " Obesity and…life expectancy also the author has mentioned that the % of people smoking is roughly the same in all rich countries (the one you have marked in Red).
However, if it is true that the USA had the most smokers in previous years then this could also be the cause and can be blamed , and thus the conclusion is weakened.
Does it help?
Hmm yes I think so. So the data from years ago would still weaken the argument of today’s trends? Probably haha I’ll take it